Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 09:30

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

Kirk Cousins spoke to the media — Here are 5 things we learned - Atlanta Falcons

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pride events face budget shortfalls as US corporations pull support ahead of summer festivities - AP News

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Do you agree with the characterization of Trump's trial as a "modern day Salem witch trial"? Why or why not?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.